Ashment (p. 24), Metcalfe (pp. 427-33), and Charles (p. 82 n. 6) criticize the Book of Mormon for using the Greek word "Christ." This old argument, often raised by critics of the Book of Mormon, is unbecoming of these more scholarly writers, who have no need to grasp at straws. Saying that the use of the Greek "Christ" is evidence against the Book of Mormon because the Nephites knew no Greek is like saying that the use of the French borrowing "bruit" (meaning "rumor") in KJV Jeremiah 10:22 proves the Bible false because the Jews of Jeremiah's time didn't know French! We are, after all, dealing with an English translation, and English has adopted a very large number of foreign words that, through time, have become acceptable English. Joseph Smith's use of the latter term in pre-Christian Book of Mormon passages is justified by the fact that it was the preeminent term for "anointed one" used in his own culture. There is no hint here that the Book of Mormon contained a Greek word or that the term rendered "Christ" by Joseph Smith was foreign to pre-Christian Israelites.

Metcalfe's complain that "Christ" was not the "name" of Jesus, as the Book of Mormon has it, but, rather, a title, is misleading. Had the Book of Mormon used the term epithet, perhaps the debate would have ended. The fact is that the term "name" and "title" are both epithets. Surnames were originally epithets denoting one's occupation, provenance, or status. Thus, "Joseph Smith" originally denoted a man named Joseph who was a smith or metalworker.

More important is the fact that, in Hebrew, a single word denotes "name" and "title." This is illustrated in the following well-known passage from Isaiah 9:6: "His name shall be called Wonderful Counsellor, the mighty God, the everlasting Father, the Prince of Peace." Whether or not one accepts this as a prophecy of Jesus, it is clear that this lengthy "name" consists of a series of titles. As for Joseph Smith's subsequent modification of the "name" of the Messiah in early passages of the Book of Mormon, isn't it logical to assume that he was struggling with how to express in his own language—English—a term that may not have been completely compatible but which, in prophetic terms, denoted the Savior?

Those who complain about the use of "Christ" in the Book of Mormon have often criticized the use of the French word "adieu" in Jacob 7:27 on similar grounds, i.e., the Nephites did not know French. The utter stupidity of such arguments continued to amaze me. The ancient Israelites also knew no English, but this doesn't mean we should reject translations of the Bible containing the English word "God"! Moreover, the French word adieu, often misspelled "adoo" by Americans, is a regular borrowing in English. It is found in at least two songs, "Red River Valley" ("Do not hasten to bid me adoo") and "There is a Tavern in Town" ("Adoo, adoo kind friends, adoo"). And on that note, I bid you adieu!